1730. What does the port number in a tcp connection specify?
It specifies the communication process on the two end system.
1731. Which of the following protocol is/are defined in transport layer?
Tcp
Udp
1732. How long is an ipv6 address?
128 bits
1733. What flavor of network address translation can be used to have one ip address allow many users to connect to the global internet?
Pat
1734. What are the two main types of access control lists (acls)?
Standard
Extended
1735. What command is used to create a backup configuration?
Copy running-config startup-config
1736. You have 10 users plugged into a hub running 10mbps half-duplex. There is a server connected to the switch running 10mbps half-duplex as well. How much bandwidth does each host have to the server?
10 mbps
1737. Which wlan ieee specification allows up to 54mbps at 2.4ghz?
G
1738. Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the ip address 192.168.168.188 255.255.255.192 resides?
192.168.168.129-190
1739. To back up an ios, what command will you use?
Copy flash tftp
1740. What protocol does ppp use to identify the network layer protocol?
Ncp
1741. Which of the following commands will allow you to set your telnet password on a cisco router?
Line vty 0 4
1742. Which protocol does dhcp use at the transport layer?
Udp
1743. Which command is used to determine if an ip access list is enabled on a particular interface?
Show ip interface
1744. Where is a hub specified in the osi model?
Physical layer
1745. What does the passive command provide to dynamic routing protocols?
Stops an interface from sending periodic dynamic updates but not from receiving updates.
1746. Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts?
Icmp
1747. How often are bpdus sent from a layer 2 device?
Every 2 seconds
1748. How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
1
1749. What does the command routera(config)#line cons 0 allow you to perform next?
Set your console password.
1750. Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?
Show access-lists
1751. Which class of ip address has the most host addresses available by default?
A
1752. In a network with dozens of switches, how many root bridges would you have?
1
1753. What ppp protocol provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink?
X.25
1754. What is a stub network?
A network that has only one entry and exit point.
1755. If your router is facilitating a csu/dsu, which of the following commands do you need to use to provide the router with a 64000bps serial link?
Routera(config-if)#clock rate 64000
1756. Which one of the following is true regarding vlans?
Vtp is used to send vlan information to switches in a configured vtp domain.
1757. What does a vlan do?
Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork.
1758. What is the main reason the osi model was created?
So different networks could communicate.
1759. How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
12
1760. What command will display the line, protocol, dlci, and lmi information of an interface?
Show interface
1761. Which protocol does ping use?
Icmp
1762. Which command is used to upgrade an ios on a cisco router?
Copy tftp flash
1763. If you wanted to delete the configuration stored in nvram, what would you type?
Erase startup
1764. What protocols are used to configure trunking on a switch?
802.1q
Isl
1765. From what location are the 1st computer instructions available on boot up?
Rom bios
1766. What could cause a fixed disk error.
Incorrect cmos settings
1767. Missing slot covers on a computer can cause?
Over heat
1768. When installing pci nics you can check the irq availability by looking at
Motherboard bios
1769. With respect to a network interface card, the term 10/100 refers to
Megabits per seconds
1770. Which motherboard form factor uses one 20 pin connector
Atx
1771. A hard disk is divided into tracks which are further subdivided into:
Sectors
1772. A wrist grounding strap contains which of the following:
Resistor
1773. Which standard govern parallel communications?
Ieee 1284
1774. In laser printer technology, what happens during the conditioning stage?
A uniform negative charge is placed on the photosensitive drum
1775. What product is used to clean smudged keys on a keyboard?
All-purpose cleaner
1776. Esd would cause the most damage to which component?
Expansion board
1777. To view any currently running terminate stay resident (tsr’s) programs you could type:
Mem
1778. Which type of system board is the most likely candidate for processor upgrading if you want maximum performance and future compatibility?
Pci
1779. Suppose that you have a the maintenance package identifies several possible field replaceable units (frus) that will resolve the problem. What should you do after turning the power off?
Replace the indicated parts, one at a time in the recommended sequence, until the problem is resolved; return unused frus to stock
1780. Most pcs give a single beep on bootup to indicate they are ok hardware wise. You boot your pc and don’t get a beep. What should you check first?
Speaker
1781. Which peripheral port provides the fastest throughput to laser printers?
Parallel
1782. The mouse pointer moves erratically, what is the possible cause?
Ball is dirty
1783. Voltage is measured:
In parallel
1784. Your customer tells you the print quality of their dot matrix printer is light then dark. Which of the following could cause the problem.
Improper ribbon advancement
1785. The 34-pin connection on an i/o card is for?
Floppy drive
1786. The terms “red book”, “yellow book”, and “orange book” refer to:
Cd-rom standards
1787. On the 16-bit isa bus, irq2 is elevated to which higher level interrupt?
9
1788. What beep codes could indicate a system board or power supply failure?
Steady short beep
No beep
One long continuous beep tone
Steady long beeps
1789. To view any currently running terminate stay resident (tsr’s) programs you could type:
Mem
1790. Which part of the laser printer should not be exposed to sunlight?
Primary corona wire
1791. After doing a low-level format, what would be the next step in configuring the hard drive in a system?
Format dos partition
1792. Resistance is measured in ?
Ohms
1793. What command is used to reset a modem when using the “at command set”?
Atz
1794. When installing a scsi cd-rom drive, you must set the cd-rom scsi adapter to:
An unused scsi address
1795. Pick the correct choice for the 80386sxcpu.
32 bit word size, 16 bit data path
1796. In inkjet technology the droplets of ink are deflected by?
Multi directional nozzles
1797. When your hard drive crashes from any of the correct selections in the question above, or from dropping it, it is known as head-to-disk interference, or hdl
True
1798. What tool is used to test serial and parallel ports?
Loop backs (wrap plugs)
1799. Esd would cause the most damage to which component?
Expansion board
1800. What is the highest binary number that can be referred to on a three position jumper block?
1
1801. What voltage does a pentium system use?
+3.3 volts
1802. A numeric error code check: a 17xx indicates a problem with:
Hard drive or controller
1803. Which provides the fastest access to large video files?
Scsi hard drives
1804. A 25-pin female connector on the back of your computer will typically be:
A parallel port
1805. On the pc side, the printer port is a:
25 pin female parallel connector
1806. You were installing an application in windows 95, and the computer crashes, what do you do?
Turn off computer and boot from a floppy disk
1807. Rs-232 is a standard that applies to:
Serial ports
1808. You just installed a new ide hard drive, but your system bios will not recognize the new drive, what should you check first.
Jumpers on the hard drive
1809. Is a superfluous step that should be ignored
Checks and verifies that contiguous memory is installed
1810. What is the best ground for a conductive work bench?
Ac outlet
1811. Topically, how many type iii pc cards can you insert in a laptop
1
1812. What is the first thing you could do to check for damage to a printer after receiving it?
Unbox it and examine it for physical damage
1813. You have a system that periodically locks up. You have ruled out software, and now suspect that it is hardware. What should you do first that could help you narrow it down to the component at fault?
Disable the cpu cache in cmos
1814. Odl supports which of the following types of association relationships?
Unary and binary
1815. An extent is which of the following?
The set of all instances of a class within a database
1816. Identify the class name for the following code: abc123 course();
Abc123
1817. Using odl, you can define which of the following?
Attribute
Structure
Operation
1818. The keyword “inverse” is used in which of the following?
Relationship
1819. The object definition language (odl) is which of the following?
Used to develop logical schemas
A data definition language for oodb
A method to implement a logical schema
1820. An atomic literal is which of the following?
Strings
Boolean
Long
1821. Which of the following is true concerning an odbms?
They have the ability to store complex data types on the web.
1822. The reserved word enum is used for which of the following?
To define a range for an attribute.
1823. Which of the following is an unordered collection of elements that may contain duplicates?
Bag
1824. Which of the following is true concerning the following statement: class manager extends employee
Manager is a concrete class and a subclass.
1825. Which of the following is an ordered collection of elements of the same type?
List
1826. A relationship should be specified how in the odl?
Both directions.
1827. Using oql, you may do which of the following?
Return an entire collection of elements including duplicates.
Return a collection of elements without duplicates.
Return a specific subset of elements using a given criteria.
1828. The object query language is which of the following”?
Similar to sql and uses a select-from-where structure
1829. What type of join is needed when you wish to include rows that do not have matching values?
Outer join
1830. What type of join is needed when you wish to return rows that do have matching values?
Equi-join
Natural join
Outer join
1831. Which of the following is true concerning a procedure?
They include procedural and sql statements.
1832. A case sql statement is which of the following?
A way to establish an if-then-else in sql.
1833. Which of the following statements is true concerning routines and triggers?
Both consist of procedural code.
1834. Which of the following is one of the basic approaches for joining tables?
Subqueries
Union join
Natural join
1835. Which of the following is true concerning systems information in an rdbms?
Rdbms store database definition information in system-created tables.
This information can be accessed using sql.
This information often cannot be updated by a user.
1836. The following sql is which type of join: select customer_t. Customer_id, order_t. Customer_id, name, order_id from customer_t,order_t where customer_t. Customer_id = order_t. Customer_id
Equi-join
1837. Embedded sql is which of the following?
Hard-coded sql statements in a program language such as java.
1838. A union query is which of the following?
Combines the output from multiple queries and must include the same number of columns.
1839. Which of the following statements is true concerning subqueries?
Involves the use of an inner and outer query.
1840. Which of the following is a correlated subquery?
Uses the result of an outer query to determine the processing of an inner query.
1841. How many tables may be included with a join?
One
Two
Three
1842. The following sql is which type of join: select customer_t. Customer_id, order_t. Customer_id, name, order_id from customer_t,order_t ;
Cartesian join
1843. Which of the following is true concerning triggers?
They have an event, condition, and action.
1844. An action assertion must include which of the following?
Anchor object
Action
Corresponding object
1845. An oval represents which of the following in an eer?
Attribute
1846. Inheritance is which of the following?
When a subtype entity inherits values of the supertype attribute
1847. When an entity instance must be a member of only one subtype, it is which of the following?
Disjoint with total specialization
1848. A supertype/subtype hierarchy is which of the following?
Each subtype has only one supertype.
1849. A rectangle represents which of the following in an eer?
Entity
1850. Which one of the following symbols is not used in an erd?
Circle
1851. Specialization is which of the following processes?
Defining one or more subtypes of the supertype and forming supertype/subtype relationships.
1852. Which of the following statements concerning business rules is true?
It may include restrictions.
1853. A supertype/subtype hierarchy has which of the following features?
Attributes are assigned at the highest logical level.
1854. A subtype discriminator is which of the following?
An attribute of the supertype whose values determine the subtype
1855. When an entity instance may be a member of multiple subtypes or it does not have to be a member of a subtype, it is which of the following?
Overlap with total specialization
1856. A subtype entity name should be which of the following?
A singular noun
Specific to the organization
Concise
1857. Use of a supertype/subtype relationship is necessary when which of the following exists?
An instance of a subtype participates in a relationship that is unique to that subtype.
1858. Which of the following is not one of the three ways to classify an action assertion?
Enabler
1859. Which of the following indicates the maximum number of entities that can be involved in a relationship?
Maximum cardinality
1860. Which type of entity cannot exist in the database unless another type of entity also exists in the database, but does not require that the identifier of that other entity be included as part of its own identifier?
Weak entity
1861. In a one-to-many relationship, the entity that is on the one side of the relationship is called a(n) ________ entity.
Parent
1862. Which type of entity represents an actual occurrence of an associated generalized entity?
Instance entity
1863. A recursive relationship is a relationship between an entity and ________ .
Itself
1864. Which of the following indicates the minimum number of entities that must be involved in a relationship?
Minimum cardinality
1865. Which of the following refers to something that can be identified in the users’ work environment, something that the users want to track?
Entity
1866. In which of the following is a single-entity instance of one type related to many entity instances of another type?
One-to-many relationship
1867. Which of the following refers to an entity in which the identifier of one entity includes the identifier of another entity?
Id-dependent entity
1868. Which type of entity is related to two or more associated entities that each contain specialized attributes that apply to some but not all of the instances of the entity?
Supertype entity
1869. An attribute that names or identifies entity instances is a(n):
Identifier.
1870. Properties that describe the characteristics of entities are called:
Attributes.
1871. In which of the following can many entity instances of one type be related to many entity instances of another type?
Many-to-many relationship
1872. Entities of a given type are grouped into a(n):
Entity class.
1873. Which of the following is not a basic element of all versions of the e-r model?
Primary keys
1874. In which of the following is a single-entity instance of one type of related to a single-entity instance of another type?
One-to-one relationship
1875. Entities can be associated with one another in which of the following?
Relationships
1876. Which type of entity has its relationship to another entity determined by an attribute in that other entity called a discriminator?
Subtype entity
1877. Which type of entity represents a logical generalization whose actual occurrence is represented by a second, associated entity?
Archetype entity
1879. In a one-to-many relationship, the entity that is on the many side of the relationship is called a(n) ________ entity.
Child
1880. Every time attribute a appears, it is matched with the same value of attribute b, but not the same value of attribute c. Therefore, it is true that:
A → b.
1881. The different classes of relations created by the technique for preventing modification anomalies are called:
Normal forms.
1882. A relation is in this form if it is in bcnf and has no multivalued dependencies:
Fourth normal form.
1883. Row is synonymous with the term:
Record.
1884. The primary key is selected from the:
Candidate keys.
1885. Which of the following is a group of one or more attributes that uniquely identifies a row?
Key
1886. When the values in one or more attributes being used as a foreign key must exist in another set of one or more attributes in another table, we have created a(n):
Referential integrity constraint.
1887. A relation is considered a:
Two-dimensional table.
1888. In the relational model, relationships between relations or tables are created by using:
Foreign keys.
1889. A functional dependency is a relationship between or among:
Attributes.
1890. Table is synonymous with the term:
Relation.
1891. Which of the following is not a restriction for a table to be a relation?
The columns must be ordered.
1892. For some relations, changing the data can have undesirable consequences called:
Modification anomalies.
1893. A key:
Identifies a row.
1894. An attribute is a(n):
Column of a table.
1895. A relation in this form is free of all modification anomalies. First normal form
Domain/key normal form
1896. If attributes a and b determine attribute c, then it is also true that:
(a,is a composite determinant.
1897. A tuple is a(n):
Row of a table.
1898. If attribute a determines both attributes b and c, then it is also true that:
A → b.
1899. One solution to the multivalued dependency constraint problem is to:
Split the relation into two relations, each with a single theme.
1900. Term data structure refers to …………….. And interrelationship between them.
Organisation of data
1901. In data structure, data may be…………………..types.
2
1902. Variables which can be accessed by all modules of the program is called?
Global
1903. Which one is a primary key in a student table
Uid number
1904. Which one is a valid sql command?
Select
1905. Which one is a non-linear data structure?
Tree
1906. Abstractions means
C. Hiding
1907. Polymorphism is a feature of
Object oriented programming
1908. Object are
C. Instances of classes
1909. In boolean algebra a+a is equal to
A
1910. In bollean algebra or operater is
+
1911. Which one of the following logical operations is represented by the sign in boolean algebra?
Or
1912. Which one is a dcl command is sql?
Grant
1913. Which one of the following sql command used to view data?
C. Select
1914. Which of the following is not a computer network?
Tcp
1915. Which of the following is not a valid network topology?
Utp
1916. Which of the following is a valid medium of computer network?
Utp
1917. “324-a, park street” is a?
String constant
1918. Math . H is a
Header file
1919. > = is a/an
Operater
1920. Which one is encapsulated in a class?
Function & data
1921. Which one is an abstract data type?
Class
1922. Which one is correct for inheritence?
Animal to cat
1923. Column/field of a table is called
C. Attribute
1924. Router is a
C. Protocol
1925. To perform i/o operation in cpp, we must use……..header
<iostream.h
1926. Cpp keywords are also called
Reserve words
1927. Dbms stands for
Database management system
1928. Combination of two/more networks beyond geographical limit is called
Wan
1929. Which operator has highest precedence in * / %?
*
1930. Primary key is also called
Candidate key
1931. Android is a/an
Operating system
1932. Float is a
Data type
1933. Which of the following is an invalid datatype in python?
(none
1934. _________ is a non-key attribute, whose values are derived from the primary key of some other table.
(foreign key
1935. The select statement when combined with __________ clause, returns records without repetition.
Distinct
1936. ______is a communication methodology designed to deliver both voice and multimedia communications over internet protocol.
Voip
1937. Which function is used to display the total number of records from table in a database?
Count(*)
1938. To establish a connection between python and sql database, connect() is used. Which of the following arguments may not necessarily be given while calling connect()?
(database
1939. Which of the following is a ddl command?
Update
1940. Which of the following types of table constraints will prevent the entry of duplicate rows?
Unique
1941. Rearrange the following terms in increasing order of data transfer rates.
Bps, kbps, mbps, gbps, tbps